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*** Bible Trivia ***

Re: Praying to Mary

TRIVIA POSTULATE:
Jesus commanded us to pray to Mary. (true/false)

VW ANSWER:
The current new pope, Benedict XVI, when he was yet Cardinal Ratzinger, and sermonized at John Paul II's funeral, went into quite some depth on this. And the following is the passage he referenced:

"When Jesus therefore saw His mother, and the disciple whom He loved standing by...He said to the disciple, Behold your mother" (Jn19:26-27)

And so, the teaching of the present pope is: John was commanded to "behold" Mary. In like manner, John Paul II had looked to Mary, and his papacy was characterized by the titular expression, that he was "Totus tuum" (totally yours) to Mary. And thus, all 'christians' likewise should behold Mary.

And so catholicism has statues of one they call "Mary", whom they venerate, and whose statues and images they behold, as they 'gaze' upon them; they pray to her the "rosary" and sing the "Ave Maria".

BUT...
What was Jesus' teaching regarding Mary?

First of all, let's put this passage from John back together, and into its proper context, shall we. Jesus is hanging on the cross, and engages both Mary and John in His "last will" before He dies.

In vs26 Jesus -first- says, "Woman, behold your son". Now, if we were to follow the Benedictine logic, we should also be praying to John, and we should have statues of John all over the place, and songs to be sung. But for some reason, Cardinal Ratzinger left out THAT part!

Then, Jesus tells John to "behold your mother" (vs27)

And then, WHAT 'concludes' the context? "And from that hour that disciple took her into his own home." (vs27b)

Jesus was bequeathing the welfare of His aging mother into the care of John. John took care of her in her old age, just AS IF she had been his own mother. That is -all- that incident is about. It has nothing whatsoever to do with deification of Mary.

In addition, how did Jesus view Mary?

At the wedding at Cana, when the wine runs out, and Mary behaves as a meddling woman, suggesting that Jesus should -do- something about it, does He reply with: Oh virgin mother, what is your holy will? No! Rather, He is a bit abrupt: "Woman, of what concern is that to Me and you?" (Jn2:4) As if to say: Let's be minding our own business.

On another occasion somebody calls out to Jesus, "Blessed is the womb that bore You, and the breasts which You sucked!" (Lk11:27b)

What does Jesus answer?

Your answer will depend on which translation you rely upon. If you rest on the Wycliffe, Tyndale, Geneva, & KJV traditions, you will see Jesus replying "Yea" (i.e. "yes") If you trust the LITV, MKJV, VW (and even the NASB, for otherwise being a perversion, got this one correct!), you will read, "NO".

So, which is it? Yes, or No? They can't -both- be right! If you go with 'yes', you will be agreeing with the marian accolades, and you are well-on-your-way to believing catholic doctrine. But the Greek actually says, "NO". DISAGREEING with the praises of Mary!

Jesus replies: "No; rather, blessed are those who hear the Word of God and keep it."

Are we to be venerating Mary, and gazing upon her images? or, are we to be keeping God's Word? Notice the wording: it is answered by Jesus as an "either/or" situation. No, don't praise Mary, but -RATHER- obey God's Word. NASB (in spite of otherwise, on the whole, being unreliable as a perversion) says it rather graphically, "On the contrary".

This is a prime example of what Jesus taught on the Sermon on the Mount: "But let your word be Yes, yes; No, no. For whatever is more than these is from evil." (Mt5:37)

When the scholars of Rome changed "no" into "yes" for the cult-works that many hold to, more than God's Word itself, they did so "from evil"

Is it not obvious...
This Babylonish doctrine of Ishtar from Rome is PATENTLY FALSE.


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