A Voice in the
October 25, 1998
Drugs, booze and Jesus
When they drink and use drugs, they are doing the things that come naturally to them. You might give them rehab...but until the root cause is dealt with, they will most often revert back.
"Why" are they drinking? "Why" are they using drugs? Apparently they don't like life in its "reality" so they are doing things to give them an escape. That missing link is Jesus Christ and His Holy Spirit. But they won't receive Jesus until they come face-to-face with their sin. And they have to be "willing" to be "sober" long enough to face it, and for it to be so detestable to them that they want Jesus' blood to wash it away.
It's what's in their heart. Change the heart, the the booze and drugs will take care of themselves.
Matthew Shepard and gay-bashing
Now, my answer...
Yes, God destroyed Sodom and Gomorah (Gen18,19) as He will the world when He pours out His wrath (Rom1:18,24,27,29) These are "worthy of death." (vs32)
While God used the [NATION] Israel to wipe out sinful/perverted nations as they occupied the land of promise, you will notice that He did not command Abraham or Lot to organize militia groups to make commando runs to deal with the perverts. Nor to torture and beat them up. "Vengeance is Mine, I will repay, says the LORD." (Rom12:19) In fact, when Sodom and Gomorah were captured by enemy kings, Abraham organized a resue mission to deliver them. (Gen14)
While Paul spoke against perversion in Romans 1, he says that his mission is to present Christ. "For I determined not to know anything among you except Jesus Christ and Him crucified." (1Cor2:2)
Do we speak out against perversion? Yes. Do we cozey up to them and exercise "tolerance" towards them? No. "And have no fellowship with the unfruitful works of darkness, but rather reprove [expose] them." (Eph5:11)
As Christians we are "subject to the higher [government] authorities." (Rom13:1) If we live in a "Theocracy" the laws will naturally condemn a sodomite to death. (Lev18:22-29) There is no such government (based on Jehovah) on earth at this time. (Israel has not yet turned back to God) Thus, we adhere to the laws where we live. And we trust God to deal with such people in His good time.
Besides, if we take matters into our own hands and kill such a person, how do we know but what they would have eventually repented and turned to God in saving Faith? After all, the sin of "sodomy" is not "unpardonable."
God is "the judge of all." (Heb12:23) Let Him be The Judge.
Lord's Supper ("Holy Communion"?) and baptism?
I don't know of any Scripture that says a person must be (water) baptized to partake of the Lord's Supper. Anyone who is a Believer in Christ HAS BEEN baptized in the Spirit. (Rom6:4) The fact that one is a Christian, means he has the Holy Spirit residing. (Rom8:9) He [IS] "baptized" ...spiritually, because the Holy Spirit "seals" the Believer at salvation. (Eph1:13)
Water baptism comes "after" the spiritual salvation. The "condition" for the Ethiopian Eunuch to be baptized was the fact that he "believed" in Jesus Christ. (Acts8:37)
When Paul spoke of eating and drinking "unworthily" (1Cor11:27) the context indicates the matter of the heart harboring sin, and the "purpose" for which the Corinthians were partaking. "Baptism" isn't mention in that passage.
Sex is marriage?
What are "marriage vows?" Did God institute them? They are man-made. I don't know this for fact, but it seems to me that the "vow" thing likely came about from economics and politics, when families or nations were joined or agreed upon. A peace agreement between two countries was sealed with the marriage of significant individuals from each country. Economics...when a daughter was given in exchange for goods and services, etc. e.g. Jacob worked for Laban 7 years each for his two wives, Rachel and Leah.
However, when Isaac and Rebekah were "married" ...he took her into his mother's tent and "she became his wife." (Gen24:67) In the context, it's pretty obvious "what" they did, for her to become his wife... When a man acquired a female (captive from war Deu21:10-13) and wanted her for his wife, it gives the month waiting period, and then vs13 says he may "go in to her and be her husband, and she shall be [his] wife". Are not the words "go in to her" (Gen29:21, Deu25:5) rather graphically descriptive of what creates the marriage.
Witnessing to a Catholic?
Re: response to Morsel-Xtra "Sinful Silence"
When Paul speaks, "that there be no divisions among you" (1Cor1:10) he is writing to Christians. And this unity is something which Jesus accomplished as He cried out on the cross "It is finished" (Jn19:30) in fulfillment of His prayer in John17 as he "is our peace" (Eph2:14) Thus, the unity is a unity "in Christ."
A true Catholic is not part of that unity in Christ. They do not worship Christ. They have given their deities the names of Jesus and Mary. But their true allegience is pagan. They actually worship the ancient "Queen of Heaven" (Ishtar, Ashtoreth, Isis), etc.
So, for you to witness to your catholic friend is not to "create" division. It merely recognizes the division that already exists, and has been there ever since you became a Believer in Christ. Jesus said, Do not think that I have come to bring peace on earth. I did not come to send peace, but a sword" (Mt10:34) ...because of the difference between His followers and those who are lost.
Yes...by all means...WITNESS to your friend. Share the "one time" sacrifice of Jesus with them. (Heb9:28) When He cried out "it is finished" that means He doesn't need to be re-sacrificed everytime the Mass is celebrated. Everytime they "sacrifice Jesus" in their "perpetual offering" they are, in actuality, "shaming Jesus." (Heb6:6) He is no longer on that cross (crucifix) as the angels proclaimed "He is not here, for He has risen!" (Mt28:6)
Your friend is in darkness. When you witness, you are not "bashing" another belief-system and making "personal attacks" on the person with those beliefs. It is for the purpose of bringing her "out of darkness into His [God's] marvelous light." (1Pt2:9)